Tiếng Anh là một trong những môn học bắt buộc của nền giáo dục Việt Nam từ trước đến nay bởi sự bổ ích của nó đối với cuộc sống hằng ngày của chúng ta. Tiếng Anh là một môn học có mặt trong đại đa số các khối đại học, hiểu được tầm quan trọng của môn Anh, Newshop mang đến cho bạn đọc tổng hợp đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Anh từ khắp các trường THPT Bắc - Trung - Nam. Bộ đề thi thử náyex giúp các em học sinh có cái nhìn tổng quát, tạo cơ hội làm quen với dạng đề thi, củng cố các kiến thức trọng tâm cần thiết và cung cấp kiến thức nâng cao giúp các em rèn luyện kĩ năng làm bài linh hoạt và chính xác, giúp các em tự tin trước khi bước vào "cuộc chiến".

Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc 
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020 LẦN 3
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the pronunciation of the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. punctual B. rubbish C. frustrate D. furious
Question 2: A. rough B. laugh C. cough D. plough
 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. mailbox B. manner C. mature D. summer
Question 4: A. generous B. genuine C. kangaroo D. fortunate
 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to thee underlined part(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: I’ll not stand for your bad attitude any longer.
A. care                               B. like                                C. tolerate                            D. mean
Question 6: “You’ve eaten all the chocolate cake?” – “What of it?
A. What does it matter?                                                     B. What’s happened to it?
C. Where is the rest?                                                          D. You mean I’ve eaten all of it?
 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: On the spur of the moment, she decided to enter the race that she had come to watch.
A. Without previous thought                                             B. For only a short time
C. After careful thought                                                    D. At the earliest possible moment
Question 8: Most of the guests at the dinner party chose to dress elegantly, but one man wore jeans and a T–shirt; he was later identified as a high school teacher.
A. gracefully                        B. decently                          C. gaudily                          D. unsophisticatedly

 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 9: Without speaking other word, I stared at the ridges of sand in the moonlight.
A. stared at                          B. in                                   C. without                          D. other
Question 10: Not until the late Middle Ages glass became a major construction material.
A. major                             B. the late                            C. Not                                D. glass became Question 11: The best defense against tsunamis are early warning that allows people to seek higher ground.
A. ground                           B. against                           C. are                                 D. seek
 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 12: We were lucky to be able to finish the project ahead _________________schedule.
A. by                                 B. before                            C. of                                  D. for
Question 13: I don’t feel like buying a__________in a poke; we’d better check the content.
A. ox                                 B. pig                                 C. buffalo                          D. cattle
Question 14: I don’t know what it ___________to be as popular with girls as my brother is.
A. uses                             B. takes                              C. demands                        D. expects
Question 15: I caught___________of a lion lying under the tree, and my heart jumped.
A. look                              B. sight                               C. scene                             D. view
Question 16: I was most_____________of his efforts to help me during the crisis.
A. appreciative                  B. appreciable                       C. appreciation                     D. appreciate
Question 17: The phone___________constantly since Jack won the first prize this morning.
A. had been ringing            B. has been ringing                 C. had rung                         D. rang
Question 18: My neighbour is___________photographer; Let’s ask him for                        advice about color film.
A. a – the                            B. the – an                          C. a – Ø                             D. the – the
Question 19: TV advertising in the late afternoon tends to__________young children.
A. aim                                B. point                              C. focus                             D. target
Question 20: Compressed air___________the power to drive pneumatic tools.
A. providing                       B. to provide                       C. which provides                 D. provides
Question 21: I asked Angela to run the office while I’m gone                         I know I can depend on her.
A. since                              B. unless                            C. although                        D. therefore
Question 22: Why don’t you just say you_________calling him a fool and make things up?
A. pity                               B. mercy                            C. sorry                              D. regret
Question 23: Most folk songs are ballads________have simple words and tell simple stories.
A. what                              B. that                                C. although                        D. when
Question 24: Most of the__________in this workshop do not work very seriously or productively.
A. eager beavers                     B. old hand                         C. rank and file                   D. tooth and nail
Question 25: Amber is a hard, yellowish brown___________ from the resin of pine–trees that lived millions of years ago.
A. substance formed             B. forming a substance            C. substance has formed D. to form a substance
 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Arguing with the boss has considerably reduced his chances of promotion.
  1. His promotion was certain until he had a dispute with the boss.
  2. He would definitely have been promoted by now if had hadn’t quarreled with the boss.
  3. He argued with the boss about why he wasn’t considered for promotion.
  4. The likelihood of his being promoted has significantly decreased because of his argument with the boss.
Question 27: Astronomy greatly interests him.
  1. He finds astronomy very interested.
  2. He is very interesting in astronomy.
  3. He takes a keen interest in astronomy.
  4. Astronomy is the subject he enjoys the most.
Question 28: She reminded her daughter of the table manners.
  1. She wanted her daughter to remember all meal time.
  2. She wanted her daughter to be more polite while eating.
  3. She wanted her daughter to leave the dinner table.
  4. She wanted her daughter to eat a little more slowly

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines the pair of sentences given in each of the following questions.

Question 29: His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious university.
  1. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that prestigious university.
  2. Failing to apply to that prestigious university, his academic record at high was poor.
  3. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn’t apply to that prestigious university.
  4. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious university.
Question 30: They are my two sister. They aren’t teachers like me.
  1. They are my two sisters, neither of whom are teachers like me.
  2. They are my two sister, who neither are teachers like me.
  3. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters are not teachers.
  4. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 31: Kathy and Kim are friends. They have just finished lunch in a restaurant.
Kathy: “The food is great. I’ll get the bill.”
Jim: “            
A. Yes, speak to you soon.                                             B. Don’t mention it.
C. It’s nothing.                                                                D. No, this is on me.
Question 32: Laura: “Remember to phone me when you arrive at the airport.”
Annie: “              .”
A. I don’t                            B. I do                                C. I will                              D. I remember
 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the numbered blanks.

THE LIFE OF COUNTRY VET
Don Strange, who works as a vet in northern England, leads a busy life. As well as having to treat pets which are unwell, he often visits farms where problems of (33)                                                                kinds await him. He has lost
(34)               of the number of times he has been called out at midnight to give advice to a farmer with sick sheep or cows.
Recently, a television company chose Don as the subject of a documentary program it was making about the life of a country vet. The program showed the difficult situations Don faces every day such as helping a cow to give birth or winning the trust of an aggressive dog (35)                                                  needs an injection. Not all of Don’s patients are domestic animals, (36)                                                                         , and in the program people saw him helping an owl which had a damaged wing. It also showed Don holding a meeting with villagers concerned about the damage a new road might do to their (37)                                                                            environment.
Question 33: A. various B. variety C. variation D. varied
Question 34: A. count B. score C. memory D. patience
Question 35: A. whose B. which C. of which D. who
Question 36: A. yet B. however C. although D. therefore
Question 37: A. nearby B. area C. local D. close

Read the following passage and mart the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The time when human crossed the Arctic land bridge from Siberia to Alaska seems remote to us today, but actually represents a late stage in the prehistory of humans, an era when polished stone implements and bows and arrows were already being used and dogs had already been domesticated.
When these early migrants arrived in North America, they found the woods and plains dominated by three types of American mammoths. These elephants were distinguished from today’s elephants mainly by their thick, shaggy coats and their huge, upward–curving tusks. They had arrived on the continent hundreds of thousands of years before their followers. The woolly mammoth in the North, the Columbian mammoth in middle North America, and the imperial mammoth of the South, together with their distant cousins the mastodons, dominated the land. Here, as in the Old World, there is evidence that humans hunted these elephants, as shown by numerous spear points found with mammoth remains.
Then, at the end of the Ice Age, when the last glaciers had retreated, there was a relatively sudden and widespread extinction of elephants. In the New World, both mammoths and mastodons disappeared. In the Old World, only Indian and African elephants survived.
Why did the huge, seemingly successful mammoths disappear? Were humans connected with their extinction? Perhaps, but at that time, although they were cunning hunters, humans were still widely settled and not very numerous. It is difficult to see how they could have prevailed over the mammoth to such an extent.

Question 38: With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned?
  1. Techniques used to hunt mammoths
  2. The relationship between man and mammoth in the New World
  3. The prehistory of humans
  4. Migration from Siberia to Alaska
Question 39: Where were the imperial mammoths the dominant type of mammoth?
A. in South America                                                      B. in the central portion of North America
C. in the southern part of North America                                D. in Alaska
Question 40: The phrase “these early migrants” in paragraph 2 refers to                  .
A. mastodons                       B. humans                          C. mammoths                      D. dogs
Question 41: It can be inferred that when humans crossed into the New World, they                                    .
  1. had never seen mammoth before
  2. soon learned to use dogs to hunt mammoths
  3. brought mammoths with them from the Old World
  4. had previously hunted mammoths in Siberia
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT true about prehistoric humans at the time of mammoths extinction?
A. They were concentrated in a small area.                            B. They were skilled hunters.
C. They were relatively few in number.                                    D. They knew how to use bows and arrows.
Question 43: The word “seemingly” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. apparently                       B. obviously                              C. tremendously                      D. formerly
Question 44: Which of the following could be best substitute for the word “implements”?
A. tools                                B. ornaments                            C. carvings                               D. houses
Question 45: Which of the following types of elephants does the author discuss in the most detail in the passage?

A. The mammoth                B. The African elephant             C. The mastodon                     D. The Indian elephant

Read the following passage and mart the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
What is meant by the term economic resources? In general, these are all the natural, man–made, and human resources that go into the production of goods and services. This obviously covers a lot of ground: factories and farms, tools and machines, transportation and communication facilities, all types of natural resources, and labor. Economic resources can be broken down into two general categories: proper resources– land and capital– and human resources– labor and entrepreneurial skills.
What do economists mean by land? Much more than the non–economist. Land refers to all natural resources that are usable in the production process: arable land, forests, mineral and oil deposits, and so on. What about capital? Capital goods are all the man–made aids to producing, storing, transporting, and distributing goods and services. Capital goods differ from consumer goods in that the latter satisfy wants directly, while the former do so indirectly by facilitating the production of consumer goods. It should be noted that capital as defined here does not refer to money. Money, as such, produces nothing.
The term labor refers to the physical and mental talents of humans used to produce goods or services (with the exception of a certain set of human talents, entrepreneurial skills, which will be considered separately because of their special significance). Thus the services of a factory worker or an office worker, a ballet dancer or an astronaut all fall under the general heading of labor.


Question 46: What is the author's main purpose in writing this passage?
  1. To explain the concept of labor.
  2. To criticize certain uses of capital.
  3. To contrast capital goods and consumer goods.
  4. To define economic resources.
Question 47: The phrase “the latter” refers to                  .
A. non–economists                B. consumer goods                C. capital goods                    D. economist
Question 48: When non–economists use the term "land", its definition                                   .
  1. is much more restrictive than when economists use it
  2. is much more general than when economists use it
  3. includes all types of natural resources
  4. changes from place to place
Question 49: Which of the following could be considered a capital good as defined in the passage?
A. A railroad                      B. A coal deposit                 C. Human skills                  D. Money
Question 50: The word “arable” is closer in meaning to                      .
A. dry                                B. open                              C. developed                      D. fertile

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Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc

Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020 LẦN 1
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following sentences.

Question 1: Contralto Arian Anderson became a member permanent of the Metropolitan Opera Company in 1995.
A. became                         B. member permanent       C. of the                             D. in 1995
Question 2: During the Middle Ages, handwriting notices kept groups of nobles informed of important events.
A. During                         B. handwriting notices   C. kept                             D. informed
Question 3: As every other nation, the United States used to define its unit of currency, the dollars, in terms of the gold standard.
A. As                                 B. every other                    C. used to define               D. its unit of currency
 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 4 to 8.

CYBERFASHION
Most of us own modern gadgets such as mobile phones, or digital cameras. We may carry them round in our pockets, or attach them to our bodies. But not for much longer! So far designers have succeeded in (4) tiny bits of technology di–rectly into our clothing. In actual fact “cyberfashion” is the latest trend! One example, the Musical Jacket, is already in the shops and stores. This jacket is silk. It is (5)    by a keyboard, also manufactured from fabric, which is connected to a tiny device (6)              plays music.
At present, you have to touch a shoulder pad to hear the music. But in the future, you will be able to operate the device just by turning your wrist or walking! For many athletes, scientists have invented a smart shirt which measures your heart rate, body temperature and respiration rate! (7)                  , the most romantic piece of cyberfashion must be the Heartthrob Brooch. This item of jewellery, made from diamonds and rubies, has two miniature transmitters. They make the brooch glow in time to the beating of its wearer’s heart. If you meet someone (8)                     , your heart will beat faster – and your brooch will let everyone know how you feel!
Question 4: A. dividing B. associate C. combining D. integrating
Question 5: A. monitored B. examined C. controlled D. managed
Question 6: A. that B. what C. who D. when
Question 7: A. Although B. However C. Moreover D. While
Question 8: A. gorge B. gorgeously C. gorgeousness D. gorgeous
 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 9: “I’ll drop you from the team if you don’t train harder,” said the captain to John.
  1. John was reminded to train harder so as not to be dropped from the team.
  2. The captain threatened to drop John from the team unless he trained harder.
  3. The captain urged that John should train harder in order not to be dropped from the team.
  1. The captain promised to drop John from the team in case he trained harder.
Question 10: It’s possible that Joanna didn’t receive my message.
  1. Joanna shouldn’t have received my message.
  2. Joanna needn’t have received my message.
  3. Joanna mightn’t have received my message.
  4. Joanna can’t have received my message.
Question 11: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
  1. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
  2. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
  3. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
  4. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 12: A. vacancy B. applicant C. diploma D. advocate
Question 13: A. campaign B. household C. purpose D. commerce
 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 14: _______non–verbal language is __________important aspect of interpersonal communication.
A. a/ an                            B. Ø/ an                            C. Ø/ the                          D. the/ an
Question 15: He refused to_________ to the local customs, which caused him a lot of troubles.
A. conform                        B. resist                              C. hinder                           D. obey
Question 16: We decided not to travel,_________the terrible weather forecast.
A. having been heard    B. to have heard             C. having heard              D. to have been heard
Question 17: The world’s biodiversity is declining at an unprecedented rate, which makes wildlife                .
A. perfect                          B. remained                       C. prosperous                    D. vulnerable
Question 18: I caught ___________ of a lion lying under the tree, and my heart jumped.
A. sight                              B. scene                             C. view                              D. look
Question 19: We always unite and work together whenever serious problems________ .
A. devise                           B. encounter                      C. arise                              D. approach
Question 20: The school drama club is __________ a play for the school’s anniversary, which is due to take place next month.
A. bringing down               B. making off                    C. turning up                     D. putting on
Question 21: My daughter often says that she won’t get married until she _________ 25 years old.
A. will be                           B. is                                   C. has been                        D. will have been
Question 22: _________ busy she is, she manages to pick her children up after school every day.
A. Despite                          B. Because                         C. Although                       D. However
Question 23: You can’t believe a word that woman says – she is ________ liar.
A. dedicated                      B. committed                     C. compulsive                    D. devoted
Question 24: Some must have taken my keys. I clearly remember __________ them by the window and now they are nowhere to be seen.
A. to be leaving                  B. to have left                    C. to leave                         D. leaving
Question 25: I don’t like John. His _________ complaints make me angry.
A. continuation                  B. continuously                 C. continuous                    D. continual
Question 26: If you            to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now.
will listen                       B. listened                          C. had listened                   D. listen
Question 27: There can be no             fixes or magic solutions to the problem of unemployment.
A. quick                             B. sudden                          C. speedy                          D. fast

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 28: One is supposed to expend far more energy in marathon run than expected.
A. exhaust                         B. spend                            C. consume                        D. reserve
Question 29: The information you have got is actually off the record, so be careful if you intend to use it for publication.
A. private                           B. official                           C. confidential                   D. important

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 30: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. Such intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
Question 31: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
C. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 32: Jane has such bewitching smile that almost everyone seems to dote on her.
A. exquisite                       B. hostile                            C. disgusting                      D. inscrutable
Question 33: The team tried for many years to win the competition and they finally brought it off.
A. required to do something                                          B. failed in doing something
C. succeeded in doing something                                 D. happened to do something

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the opinion that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 34: Tom and Peter are at school watching a sports event.
Tom: “Man, he’s the fastest runner our school has ever had!”
Peter: “          .”
A. My pleasure                                                            B. I’m afraid so
C. Yep, you’d better believe it                                      D. No, I couldn’t agree with you more
Question 35: Mary and Jane are talking about John.
Mary: “I was so disgusted by his accusations that I packed up my things and left right then and there.”
Jane: “________. No one can put up with his selfishness.”
A. Why?                            B. I don’t blame you          C. Are you serious?           D. I doubt that

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 36: A. account B. drought C. without D. southern
Question 37: A. clicked B. closed C. raced D. mixed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 45.
Oxford University scientists have launched an attempt to bring the Northern White Rhinoceros back from beyond the “point of no return” using IVF (In Vitro Fertilization). The team believes a pioneering treatment can prompt a revival of the persecuted species, despite the death last year of the last known male and the fact that the two remaining females, Najin and Fatu, cannot have calves.
One of two subspecies of White Rhinoceros, the Northern Rhinoceros once ranged over tracts of Uganda, Sudan, Central African Republic and the Democratic Republic of Congo. However, the value of its horns saw it poached from a population of approximately 500 to 15 in the 1970s and 1980s. A small recovery – numbers reached 32 – from the early 1990s was then reversed from 2003 when illegal hunting intensified again.
The Oxford researchers believe that it will be possible to remove ovarian tissue from the animals and stimulate it to produce eggs, which would then be fertilised from sperm preserved from male Northern White Rhinoceros. The embryos would then be implanted into a surrogate mother of a similar species, probably a Southern White Rhinoceros. The technique has been used successfully in mice for nearly two decades; it has also been accomplished for some species of dog, horse and cat. However, it has never been attempted before on a rhinoceros, meaning the Oxford team plan to perfect it first by conducting a series of trials on ovarian tissue taken from a Southern White Rhinoceros.
In principal, the benefit of removing ovarian tissue for use in the lab is that it can go on producing eggs. Other researchers are exploring the possibility of using the remaining Northern White Rhinoceros sperm to cross–breed with Southern White Rhinoceros, however Dr Williams believes the focus should be on preserving the identity of the northern species. “This will be a huge buffer against disease and ill health in the long–term, and give the new herds better genetic ability to adapt to changing environments in the future.”
Najin was born in captivity in 1989 and Fatu in 2000. They both belong to the Cvur Kralove Zoo in the Czech Republic, which shipped them to the Ol Pejeta Conservancy in Kenya in 2009 amid tight security. In place of their horns, keepers have fitted radio transmitters to allow close monitoring of their whereabouts in the large paddock areas. The team has enough funding for three years’ research, donated from Fondation Hoffman, however Oxford University has launched a public appeal to raise the money to secure the project long term.


Question 38: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
  1. Oxford University in an Attempt to Protect an Endangered Species.
  2. Oxford University to Launching a Campaign to Raise Public Awareness of Rhinoceros.
  3. Oxford University Pondering Changes to Fertilizing Techniques.
  4. Oxford University Holding a Public Appealto Raise the Animal Protection Fund.
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, the number of Northern Rhinoceros                  .
  1. has been dramatically dropped since 2003, after a long time of continuous development
  2. has been descended as a result of illegal hunting since people began to value its horns
  3. decreased from approximately 500 to 32 in the 1970s and 1980s because of poaching
  4. was relatively small in Central African Republic and the Democratic Republic of Congo
Question 40: The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to             ?
A. Southern White Rhinoceros                                     B. Nothern White Rhinoceros
C. subspecies                                                               D. White Rhinoceros
Question 41: The word “intensified” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to    .
A. introduced                     B. discouraged                   C. eliminated                     D. increased
Question 42: According to the passage, Najin and Fatu are mentioned about all of the following EXCEPT
           .
A. their origin                 B. their gender                C. their strength              D. their habitat
Question  43:  The  word “surrogate” in paragraph 3 mostly means                .
A. considerate                    B. endurance                     C. prolific                          D. substitute
Question 44: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that               .
  1. Preserving the identity of the northern species is the priority in this period of time
  2. Hybrid Rhinoceros can adapt to the future environment better than their ancestors
  3. Dr William wants to promote cross–breeding Southern and Northern Rhinoceros
  4. Cross–breeding always makes animals lose their natural ability to adapt the environment
Question 45: Which of the following statement is TRUE according to the passage?
  1. Oxford University can afford a three year project without being sponsored by any foudation.
  2. Najin and Fatu are the last known female rhinos which can have calves naturally.
  3. Researchers can find out the position of Najin and Fatu if they want.
  4. The technique that Oxford University scientists use to breed rhinos has never been successful before.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.
Transportation accounts for up to one–third of greenhouse gas emissions from the world’s biggest cities and traffic is the largest source of toxic air pollution. To create sustainable, healthy and liveable cities, we need to increase the number of cyclists on our streets, and that means getting more women on their bikes. In San Francisco, only 29% of cyclists are women; in Barcelona, there are three male cyclists for every female cyclist; in London, 37% of cyclists are female.
Surveys reveal that potential cyclists of all genders are deterred by similar concerns, including aggressive and speeding drivers, the threat posed by large vehicles such as lorries and buses, and bike theft. However, women disproportionately view protected cycle lanes as a more urgent priority. According to research about women and cycling in San Francisco, cities should invest in protected cycle lanes with consistent and clear signage that function as a joined–up network to encourage female riders. Together with more secure cycle parking, these infrastructure investments would make cycling safer, supporting those who already cycle and encouraging those who do not yet ride.
People do what they perceive to be possible. Research in San Francisco found that women, especially women of colour, felt that “people like me” do not cycle. Similarly, 49% of people in London say they do not feel cycling is for “people like them”. More diverse and inclusive imagery of cyclists (in policy documents, in the media and on city streets) could help challenge these perceptions and make more people feel that cycling is for everyone. Social events that enable women to try cycling in a relaxed environment, perhaps as part of a buddy or mentor system that pairs experienced cyclists with those newer to cycling, can help make cycling more accessible and inclusive, along with approaches such as female–led maintenance classes.
The different decisions men and women make about cycling are not only based on issues of convenience or comfort. People’s perceptions of safety influence how, when, where and why they travel.
Women and girls learn early on to worry about their personal safety when out and about, and to change their behaviour, dress, speech and travel patterns to avoid sexual harassment or violence. Cities must take women’s and girls’ safety considerations seriously through initiatives such as safety audits.
Question 46: What is the passage mainly about?
  1. Ways to enable women to cycle in a relaxed environment.
  2. Women learn to avoid sexual harassment or violence.
  3. How to make cycling safer for women.
  4. How to get more women cycling in cities.
Question 47:  The word “deterred” in paragraph  2 mostly means            .
A. prevented                      B. motivated                      C. encouraged                   D. decided
Question 48: According to paragraph 2, cities should invest in transport infrastructure   .
A. to attract people who do not cycle yet            B. to promote public transport
C. to encourage male cyclists                                       D. to enable people to use their private cars
Question 49: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
  1. Traffic in big cities is partly blamed for air pollution.
  2. The time when people travel does not depend on the degree of safety they perceive.
  3. There hasn’t been a great deal of publicity for all kinds of cyclists.
  4. In order to make cycling more popular, female cyclists should be encouraged to travel alone.
Question 50: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to                .

A. girls            B. people’s perceptions             C. women               D. women and girls
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Trường THPT Chuyên Hà Tĩnh

Sở Giáo Dục & Đào Tạo Bình Phước
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined and from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. watches B. involves C. changes D. misses
Question 2: A. deal B. cream C. sea D. threat
 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. vacancy B. habitat C. opponent D. partnership
Question 4: A. busy B. polite C. careful D. special
 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: He looks for any excuse he can to blow off his                            to do housework.
A. commitment                    B. obligation                        C. assignment                       D. responsibility
Question 6: Britain has accused Russia                        poisoning the ex-Russian spy Sergei Skripal and his daughter.
A. of                                  B. on                                  C. for                                 D. from
Question 7: If she were not afraid of flying, she                      far a lot.
A. have travelled                   B. travelled                          C. will travel                       D. would travel
Question 8: He expected                    for an Oscar, but he wasn't.
A. nominating                      B. to nominate                    C. to be nominated                D. being nominated
Question 9: _____________, Tim recovered from the sickness quickly.
A. Just cared about Mr.Parks                                               B. Under the care of Dr.Parks
C. On care of Dr. Parks                                                   D. He had just cared for Dr Parks
Question 10: As John ________ enjoyed doing research, he never could imagine himself pursuing other careers.
A. extremely                        B. utterly                            C. thoroughly                       D. totally
Question 11: In some countries, many old-aged parents like to live in a nursing home. They want to                      independent lives.
A. give                               B. lead                               C. take                               D. keep
Question 12: Nowadays more and more students                                 work in mountainous areas in summers.
A. voluntarily                     B. volunteer                         C. volunteers                        D. voluntary
Question 13: Although she would have preferred to carry on working, my mum _                        her career in order to have children.
A. repealed                          B. sacrificed                         C. abolished                         D. devoted
Question 14: Everyone will tell you that becoming a parent is challenging, but you never really know what that means until you learn about it the            way.
A. long                               B. direct                             C. full                                D. hard
Question 15: Did you read                 book I lent you last week?
A. a                                    B. the                                 C. an                                  D. no article
Question 16:                   , she complained to the head teacher.
A. Once annoying by the boys' behaviour                              B. Annoyed by the boys' behaviour
C. Having annoyed behaviour by the boys                            D. She annoyed by the boys' behaviour uncommon
Question 17: Telecom giant Viettel decided to implement the 5G network his technology was still uncommon.
A. because                           B. in spite of                        C. although                        D. because of
Question 18: Malaysia and Indonesia                      into dumpsites after China had stopped importing their trash.
A. was turning                     B. turned                            C. had turned                      D. has turned

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: I am thankful for my wife, who vowed to be my biggest fan on the day we were married and has never once let me down.
A. grateful                          B. passionate                        C. supportive                       D. kind
Question 20: When I was a child I always looked up to my father. He was a real role model for me.
A. understood                       B. liked                              C. trusted                           D. admired

Mark the letter A, B, C, er on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning te the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21: Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system, he just made light of it.
A. completely ignored                                                      B. treated as important
C. disagreed with                                                             D. discovered by chance
Question 22: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. unskilled                        B. ill-educated                      C. unimpaired                      D. unqualified


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 23: Linda and Mary are talking about helping the disadvantaged people.
Linda: "I think we should give care and comfort to the orphan."
Mary: “ _____________ ”
A. OK. No problem.                                                      B. The same to you.
C. Yes, that's a good idea.                                            D. Thank you.
Question 24: Mary invites Sally to take part in the campaign.
Mary: "Would you like to join the Green Movement?"
Sally: “ ________________ ”
A. Yes, I'd like to.                                                          B. OK. What's the matter?
C. That's great. Congratulations.                                  D. Well, you are right.


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
          Around 200 million people are employed in tourism worldwide, making it the largest industry in the modern global (25)__________________________. It is estimated that three-quarters of a billion people go on holiday each year, and industry planners expect this figure to double by 2020. Some of the biggest beneficiaries are less developed countries, where it is often their main source of income. 
          (26)              , along with the economic benefits, this mass movement of people has resulted in threats to the environment. People often forget the damage caused by carbon dioxide emissions from aircraft, (27)                                         contribute directly to global warming. Deforestation has cleared land in order to build hotels, airport and roads, and this has destroyed wildlife. In some areas, water shortages are now common because of the need to fill swimming pools and water golf courses for tourists. By pushing up prices for goods and services, tourism can also be (28)         to the people who live in tourist destinations.
          In response to these concerns, some travel operators now offer environmental friendly holidays. Many of these aim to reduce the negative effect of tourism by (29)                                                                 only hotels that have invested equipment to recycle waste and use energy and water efficiently. Increasingly, tourists are also being reminded to show respect for the customs of the people whose countries they are going to visit, and to support local businesses, such as restaurants and shops, which depend on tourism for their main income.
Question 25: A. economize B. economy C. economical D. economically
Question 26: A. However B. In addition C. Therefore D. Moreover
Question 27: A. whatever B. which C. what D. that
Question 28: A. helpful B. changeable C. harmful D. secure
Question 29: A. promoting B. empowering C. voting D. permitting

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

In today's competitive world, what responsible parent would not want to give their children the best possible start in life? For this reason, many parents want their children, often as young as ten months old, to become familiar with computers. They seem to think that if their children grow up with computers, they will be better equipped to face the challenges of the future.
No one has proved that computers make children more creative or more intelligent. The truth may even be the opposite. Educational psychologists claim that too much exposure to computers, especially for the very young, may negatively affect normal brain development. Children gain valuable experience of the world from their interaction with physical objects. Ten-month-old babies may benefit more from bumping their heads or putting various objects in their mouths than they will from staring at eye-catching cartoons. A four-year-old child can improve hand-eye coordination and understand cause and effect better by experimenting with a crayon than by moving a cursor around a computer screen. So, as educational psychologists suggest, instead of government funding going to more and more computer classes, it might be better to devote resources to music and art programs.
It is ludicrous to think that children will fall behind if they are not exposed to computers from an early age. Time is too precious to spend with a "mouse". Now is the time when they should be out there learning to ride a bike. There will be time later on for them to start banging away at keyboards.
(Source: Internet)
Question 30: What would be an appropriate title for this passage?
A. Let kids be kids                                                         B. Computers in schools

C. Never too early to start                                             D. More computers mean brighter future
Question 31: Children who spend a lot of time on their computers                              .
  1. will suffer from brain damage
  2. tend to have more accidents than those who do not
  3. do not necessarily make more progress than those do not
  4. tend to like music and art more than those who do not
Question 32: The pronoun "they" in paragraph 2 refer to .
A. heads                             B. objects                             C. mouths                          D. babies
Question 33: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?
  1. Parents should not put off buying a computer for their children.
  2. It is better for children to take computer lessons than art lessons.
  3. There is no evidence that children who use computers are cleverer than those who do not.
  4. Computers seriously harm children's eyesight.
Question 34: The word "ludicrous" paragraph 3 mostly means .
A. ironic           B. sensible         C. humorous    D. ridiculous

Read the following passage and mark the letter A. Đáp án B. Đáp án C. or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth’s ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems
and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution.
Certainly, there have been periods in Earth’s history when mass extinctions have occurred. The extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out.
However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new environments.
(Source: Internet)
Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?
  1. The time required for species to adapt to new environments
  2. The variety of species found in tropical rainforests
  3. The impact of human activities on Earth's ecosystems
  4. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs
Question 36: The author mentions all of the following is examples of the effect of humans on the world's ecosystems EXCEPT                                                   .
  1. the extensive damage to marine ecosystems
  2. the habitat destruction in wetlands
  3. the destruction of the tropical rainforests
  4. the introduction of new varieties of plant species
Question 37: The word "jolting" in paragraph 1 mostly means                        .
A. appealing                       B. illuminating                     C. shocking                          D. disgusting
Question 38: The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to                       .
A. species                           B. centuries                          C. activities                         D. humans
Question 39: What can be inferred from the extinction of the dinosaurs in paragraph 2?
  1. Not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity.
  2. Actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species' extinction.
  3. Earth's climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs' extinction.
  4. The cause of the dinosaurs' extinction is unknown.
Question 40: The word "magnitude" in paragraph 3 mostly means                         .
A. extent                            B. ignorance                         C. greed                             D. concem
Question 41: According to the passage, natural evolutionary change is different from change caused by humans in that changes caused by humans                                                          .
A. affect fewer ecosystems                                               B. are occurring at a much faster rate
C. are less devastating to most species                                 D. are reversible
Question 42: Which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree with?
  1. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems.
  2. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems.
  3. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy.
  4. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: We can go (A) along this road as (B) they have built already (C) a bridge across the (D) river.
Question 44: The researchers hope to trial (A) the therapy within the next three years (B) in people with a rare genetic disorder (C) suffering from heart assault (D) in their 30s and 40s.
Question 45: The (A) bitcoin system created (B) in 2009 by an enigmatie (C) person named (D) Satoshi Nakamoto.


Mark the letter A. Đáp án B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: "Do you believe in what the boy says, Mary?" said Peter.
  1. Peter told Mary to believe in what the boy said.
  2. Peter said that Mary believed in what the boy had said.
  3. Peter asked Mary whether she believed in what the boy says.
  4. Peter asked Mary if she believed in what the boy said.
Question 47: Her mother cooks much better than her.
  1. Her mother will be the best cooker in her family.
  2. Her mother is a best cook than her.
  3. She was much better at cooking than her mother.
  4. She doesn't cook as well as her mother.
Question 48: Sally paid for her travel in advance, but I'm not sure.
  1. Sally needn't have paid for her travel in advance.
  2. Sally should not have paid for her travel in advance.
  3. Sally may not have paid for her travel in advance.
  4. Sally couldn't have paid for her travel in advance.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Tom left the tickets at home. Tom regrets that.
  1. Tom was sorry that he has left the tickets at home.
  2. Tom wishes he hadn't left the tickets at home.
  3. Tom regrets not leaving the tickets at home.
  4. Tom regrets to leave the tickets at home.
Question 50: He was appointed to the post. Right after his appointment, he fell ill.
  1. No sooner did he appointed to the post than he fell ill.
  2. No sooner had he appointed to the post than he fell ill.
  3. Hardly had he appointed to the post when he fell ill.
  4. Hardly had he been appointed to the post when he fell ill.
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Tỉnh Bình Phước
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Tỉnh Bình Phước
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Tỉnh Bình Phước
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Tỉnh Bình Phước
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Tỉnh Bình Phước
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Tỉnh Bình Phước
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Tỉnh Bình Phước
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Tỉnh Bình Phước
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Tỉnh Bình Phước
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Tỉnh Bình Phước
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Tỉnh Bình Phước
Đáp Án Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia 2020 Môn Anh Tỉnh Bình Phước
Dưới đây Newshop xin giới thiệu đến bạn đọc một vài cuốn sách luyện thi THPT Quốc gia môn Anh hay nhất mọi thời đại giúp các bạn có một kì ôn thi, luyện tập thuận lợi hơn, hiệu quả hơn.

ĐỘT PHÁ 8+ KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH
 
Đột Phá 8+ Kì Thi THPT Quốc Gia Môn Tiếng Anh
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Ưu điểm nổi bật của sách:
♦ Lý thuyết về ngữ pháp được trình bày rõ ràng, có ví dụ mẫu song song để làm rõ cách sử dụng.
♦ Bài tập có lời giải, phân tích chi tiết để học sinh hiểu sâu, nhớ lâu.
♦ Mẹo lựa chọn đáp án chính xác từ các dấu hiệu nhận biết trong tiếng Anh, tối ưu thời gian làm bài.
♦ Có hệ thống các phương pháp, lưu ý trước mỗi dạng bài.
♦ Mỗi bài tập tự luyện và bài tập tổng hợp đều tích hợp mã ID để truy cập hệ thống CCTest – xem lời giải chi tiết và phân tích các đáp án gây nhiễu, làm các đề thi thử theo chuẩn cấu trúc của Bộ.
♦ Mỗi cuốn sách còn kèm theo video bài giảng nhằm giải đáp những vấn đề mà các em học sinh thường vướng mắc.
♦ Sách có đi kèm nhóm hỗ trợ học tập trên Facebook 24/24 giúp việc giải đáp học tập giữa giáo viên và học sinh dễ dàng mọi lúc, mọi nơi.


CÔNG PHÁ TIẾNG ANH 1
Công Phá Tiếng Anh 1
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Sách Công Phá Tiếng Anh 1 nằm trong mục sách luyện thi THPT quốc gia 2019 môn Tiếng Anh. Là cuốn sách tập hợp tất cả những ngữ pháp cần thiết trong các kì thi, chia thành 21 chủ đề. Và mỗi chủ đề được chia làm 3 phần:
♦ Phần A: Phần lý thuyết (hệ thống cô đọng những ngữ pháp và đồng thời liên hệ những ví dụ dễ hiểu cho người học)
♦ Phần B: Phần bài tập vận dụng (gồm 2 phần là : tổng hợp câu hỏi trong các kì thi đại học, THPTQG của bộ giáo dục - hệ thống câu hỏi mà tác giả xây dựng và những câu hỏi tổng hợp từ các nguồn uy tín nước ngoài)
♦ Phần C: Giải chi tiết (các câu hỏi phần bài tập sẽ được giải đáp ,một cách chi tiết và dễ hiểu nhât , đồng thời củng cố lại kiến thức cho người đọc)


COMBO CHINH PHỤC TOÀN DIỆN NGỮ PHÁP TIẾNG ANH BẰNG INFOGRAPHIC ( TẬP 1+TẬP 2 )

Hiện nay, trên thị trường có hàng trăm đầu sách tham khảo về ngữ pháp tiếng Anh. Tuy nhiên, Chinh phục toàn diện ngữ pháp tiếng Anh bằng infographic với những ưu điểm nổi bật sẽ giúp người Việt dễ dàng chinh phục được kiến thức về ngữ pháp:
♦ Tổng hợp kiến thức ngữ pháp tiếng Anh thông dụng nhất:
Qua 20 chuyên đề bài học, các bạn sẽ được học những chủ điểm ngữ pháp thông dụng nhất. Những kiến thức ngữ pháp tiếng Anh này thường xuất hiện giao tiếp hằng ngày và trong các đề thi.
♦ Kiến thức được trình bày dưới dạng Infographic:
Khối lượng kiến thức được trình bày dưới dạng Infographic. Thay vì trình bày kiến thức một cách tràn lan, nhàm chán như một số cuốn sách ngữ pháp khác trên thị trường; cuốn sách sử dụng infographic biểu hiện thông tin trực quan bằng hình ảnh nhằm truyền tải kiến thức nhanh chóng và rõ ràng.
Với thiết kế đẹp mắt, hình ảnh minh họa sinh động; đảm bảo tính logic, ngắn gọn, súc tích; các vấn đề phức tạp sẽ được đơn giản hóa nhằm giúp người học dễ tiếp cận và ghi nhớ kiến thức.
♦ Bài tập được phân theo các mức độ khác nhau:
Hệ thống bài tập được chia thành hai mức độ cơ bản; nâng cao sẽ giúp người học ghi nhớ và củng cố lượng kiến thức đã học. Ngoài ra, có thể dễ dàng đánh giá được lực học của mình đang ở mức độ nào; xác định kiến thức cần bổ sung thêm.
♦ Lời giải chi tiết, dễ hiểu:
Đáp án, giải thích chi tiết và dịch nghĩa nằm ở những trang cuối của cuốn sách nhằm giúp bạn đọc kiểm tra, đánh giá năng lực của mình. Rất phù hợp để các bạn tự chủ động trong quá trình học.


Hy vọng với những đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 và một vài cuốn sách luyện thi sẽ cung cấp cho các bạn học sinh đang ôn thi những kiến thức bổ ích và rèn luyện kỹ năng làm bài linh hoạt, nhanh chóng và chính xác, phần đáp án chi tiết sẽ giúp các bạn có thể kiểm tra đáp án, tự đánh giá năng lực bản thân, từ đó có phương pháp học tập và luyện thi phù hợp.